SCIENCE ON FREE TUITION

 

1.   Which particle is a negatively charged ion?

A.     Hydrogen (H) with 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron

B.     Sodium (Na) with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons

C.     Chlorine (Cl) with 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 18 electrons

D.     Magnesium (Mg) with 12 protons, 12 neutrons, and 12 electrons

 

Key

 C

2.   Which of the following is an example of a nuclear fission reaction?

A.    

B.    

C.    

D.    

 

Key

 D

3.   Why does radioactive dating of meteorites give a more accurate age for Earth than radioactive dating of rocks at Earth’s surface?

A.     Most rocks that first formed on Earth’s surface have since undergone major geologic changes.

B.     Most rocks found on Earth’s surface are older than most meteorites.

C.     Most meteorites contain minerals that are the same age as those found on Earth’s surface.

D.     Most meteorites are made of the same type of iron that is found in Earth’s core.

 

Key

 A

4.   A student placed two identical beakers on a windowsill. One beaker contained 80 milliliters (mL) of Liquid A, and the other beaker contained 80 mL of Liquid B. The student left the beakers uncovered and undisturbed.

After three days, both beakers contained less liquid. However, there was less of Liquid B than Liquid A. The diagram below shows the volume of liquid in each beaker at the start of the experiment and after three days.

 

 

Why is there less liquid in both beakers after three days?

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Which liquid has the lower boiling point?

 

  1. Liquid A

  2. Liquid B

 

Explain how you know. Support your answer by referring to the results of the experiment and by comparing the attraction among the molecules in Liquid A with the attraction among the molecules in Liquid B.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response consists of four parts:  indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated  indicates that Liquid  B has the lower boiling point  relates the lower boiling point to greater evaporation of Liquid  B or to less thermal energy required to change Liquid  B to gas  relates the lower boiling point to the weaker attraction among the molecules of Liquid  B

Satisfactory Student response indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated. Response identifies that Liquid  B has the lower boiling point, and it correctly relates the lower boiling point to the relative evaporation of Liquids  A and  B to the amount of thermal energy required to change Liquid  B to a gas or to the attraction among the molecules. OR Student response indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated. Response incorrectly selects (A) Liquid  A, but it correctly relates the lower boiling point either to the relative evaporation of Liquids  A and  B or to the smaller amount of thermal energy required to change Liquid  B to a gas. Response also correctly relates the lower boiling point to the weaker molecular attraction among the molecules of Liquid  B supporting choice (B).

Essential Student response indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated. Response incorrectly selects (A) Liquid  A, but it correctly relates the lower boiling temperature to the relative evaporation of Liquids  A and  B or to the smaller amount of thermal energy required to change Liquid  B to a gas or to the weaker attraction among the molecules of Liquid  B. OR Student response identifies that Liquid  B has the lower boiling point, and it correctly relates the lower boiling point to the relative reduction in volumes of Liquids  A and  B to the smaller amount of thermal energy required to change the state of Liquid  B or to the weaker attraction among the molecules of Liquid  B.

Partial Student response indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated.  OR Student response correctly relates the lower boiling point to the relative evaporation of Liquids  A and  B to the smaller amount of thermal energy required to change Liquid  B to a gas or to the weaker attraction among the molecules of Liquid  B.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

The following question  refer to the following information.

Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they develop an evolutionary tree, as shown below.

 

 

5.   What information about the organisms best helps the scientists to determine the evolutionary relationships among them?

A.     DNA sequences

B.     Anatomical features

C.     Habitat types

D.     Reproductive strategies

 

Key

 A

The following question  refer to the following information.

Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they develop an evolutionary tree, as shown below.

 

 

6.   Which statement can be inferred from the evolutionary tree?

A.     Species 1 is most closely related to Species 8.

B.     Species 2 is most closely related to Species 3.

C.     Species 3 is most closely related to Species 7.

D.     Species 5 is most closely related to Species 6.

 

Key

 D

The following question  refer to the following information.

Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they develop an evolutionary tree, as shown below.

 

 

7.   Additional data indicated that Species 8 shares a similar thorny leaf structure with a different plant species found in Madagascar (an African country), as shown below. The scientists hypothesized that different plant species can have similar leaf structures but not be closely related.

 

 

 

Explain how to test the scientists’ hypothesis.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response describes the type of data to be collected and indicates that these data need to be collected from both species and compared.

Partial Student response describes the type of data to be collected. OR   Student response indicates that these data need to be collected from both species and compared.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

The following question  refer  to the carbon cycle diagram below, which shows some of the ways that carbon moves through different parts of Earth’s environment.

 

8.   Which portion of the carbon cycle is driven directly by energy from the Sun?

A.     The formation of coal beneath rock layers

B.     The release of carbon dioxide during volcanic eruptions

C.     The emission of carbon dioxide from oil-burning power plants

D.     The formation of sugars at Earth’s surface

 

Key

 D

The following question  refer   to the carbon cycle diagram below, which shows some of the ways that carbon moves through different parts of Earth’s environment.

 

 

 

9.   In the diagram, which portion of the carbon cycle is driven directly by Earth’s internal heat energy?

A.     The movement of carbon between the ocean and the atmosphere

B.     The emission of carbon dioxide from oil-burning power plants

C.     The release of carbon dioxide during volcanic eruptions

D.     The exhalation of carbon dioxide by animals

 

Key

 C

10.    Although nuclear fusion power plants are not currently used for power generation, people want to develop fusion power. Nuclear fusion power plants in the future are expected to solve some of the technological problems of existing nuclear fission power plants.

Describe two advantages nuclear fusion power would have compared with nuclear fission power. (Do not include economic factors.)

 

 

 

1.

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2.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response provides two correct advantages of fusion power plants compared to fission power plants.

Partial Student response provides one advantage of fusion power plants.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

11.    What is the correct order for the levels of organization in living systems from the simplest to the most complex? (Note that not all levels of organization are included.)

A.    

B.    

C.    

D.    

 

Key

 A

12.    Emissions of greenhouse gases from automobiles and factories are often cited as a cause of global warming. Automobiles and factories also emit solid particles such as smoke and ash.

Explain how emissions of these solid particles could cause global cooling.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response indicates that the solid particles in the atmosphere block incoming solar radiation so Earth is heated less.

Partial Student response indicates that the solid particles in the atmosphere block incoming solar radiation.  OR Student response indicates that the solid particles in the atmosphere cause less heat to reach Earth.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

13.    If the Sun were twice as far away from Earth as it is now, what would happen to the strength of the gravitational force between the Sun and Earth?

A.     It would be the same strength as it is now.

B.     It would be two times as strong as it is now.

C.     It would be one-half as strong as it is now.

D.     It would be one-fourth as strong as it is now.

 

Key

 D

The following question  refer   to the following experiment.

An experiment was conducted to determine which wavelengths of visible light are most effective for photosynthesis. The units shown here are in nanometers (nm).

 

Two organisms were used: filamentous algae, which are capable of photosynthesis, and some aerobic bacteria, which are not capable of photosynthesis.

 

Both organisms were suspended in a water droplet and placed on a microscope slide. The slide was exposed to light that was passed through a crystal prism. (The prism was used to separate visible light into its wavelengths.)

 

The diagram below illustrates what was seen on the microscope slide before and one hour after exposure to light that was passed through the prism.

 

 

14.    Based on the results of the experiment, which two regions of the visible light spectrum are most effective for photosynthesis?

 

1.

2.

 

Explain the relationship between the aerobic bacteria and the filamentous algae.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response consists of three parts:  identifies a region of the light spectrum effective for photosynthesis: 420 nm (acceptable values from 400-500 nm), violet, or blue light  identifies a second region of the light spectrum effective for photosynthesis: 680 nm (acceptable values from 560-700 nm), orange, or red light  demonstrates understanding of bacteria clustered in the region where oxygen is given off by the algae during photosynthesis

Essential Student response addresses two parts of a correct explanation.

Partial Student response addresses one part of a correct explanation.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

The following question  refer   to the following experiment.

An experiment was conducted to determine which wavelengths of visible light are most effective for photosynthesis. The units shown here are in nanometers (nm).

 

Two organisms were used: filamentous algae, which are capable of photosynthesis, and some aerobic bacteria, which are not capable of photosynthesis.

 

Both organisms were suspended in a water droplet and placed on a microscope slide. The slide was exposed to light that was passed through a crystal prism. (The prism was used to separate visible light into its wavelengths.)

 

The diagram below illustrates what was seen on the microscope slide before and one hour after exposure to light that was passed through the prism.

 

 

15.    The diagram below illustrates what was seen on the microscope slide one hour after exposure to light that was passed through a prism. The colors associated with the wavelengths of light are also indicated.

 

Based on the results of the experiment, a student concludes that the scientist used algae that was green.

Do you agree with the student’s conclusion?

 

 

  1. Yes

  2. No

 

Refer to the results from the experiment to support your answer.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response selects (A) Yes and provides a correct explanation that consists of three parts:

Essential Student response selects (A) Yes and addresses two parts of a correct explanation. OR Student response does not select (A) but addresses three parts of a correct explanation.

Partial Student response indicates (A) Yes and addresses one part of a complete response correctly. OR Student response selects (B) No or makes no selection, but addresses one or two parts of a complete response correctly.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

16.    Two dogs pull on a flat-bottom sled with forces of equal magnitude in the directions indicated by the arrows below. The dot represents the sled.

 

 

 

Which arrow best represents the direction of motion of the sled?

 

A.    

B.    

C.    

D.    

 

Key

 C

17.    The picture below shows a rock formation with folded layers.

 

 

 

Which statement best explains how the rock layers folded?

 

A.     The rock melted and flowed downhill.

B.     The rock was deformed by a meteorite impact.

C.     The rock was suddenly pulled apart during an earthquake.

D.     The rock was slowly compressed due to tectonic plate movement.

 

Key

 D

18.    Scientists determine what elements a star is made of by studying the light it emits. They compare the spectrum of the starlight to reference spectra of known elements.

The diagram below shows the characteristic spectral line patterns of four elements. Also shown is the spectrum of a star that contains two of these elements.

 

 

Which two of these elements are present in the star?

 

A.     Lithium and helium

B.     Lithium and sodium

C.     Hydrogen and helium

D.     Hydrogen and sodium

 

Key

 C

19.    When a cork is added to a glass of water, the cork floats at the top of the water instead of sinking to the bottom of the glass. Which statement helps explain why this happens?

A.     The cork absorbs the water, so it cannot sink.

B.     The water is exerting an upward force on the cork.

C.     The water stops the force of gravity from acting on the cork.

D.     The density of the cork is greater than that of the water.

 

Key

 B

20.    Which statement about the offspring that result from sexual reproduction is generally true?

A.     The offspring show genetic variation from the parents.

B.     The offspring have genetic material identical to that of one another.

C.     The offspring have genetic material identical to that of one of the parents.

D.     The offspring have twice as much genetic material as each parent.

 

Key

 A

21.    The figure below shows a 2-kilogram (kg) object. A 10-newton (N) force pushes the object horizontally across a level flat surface. The frictional force that results from contact with the surface produces a 2-N force that opposes the direction of the object’s movement.

 

 

 

Calculate the net force on the object in newtons (N). Show your calculations.

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Calculate the acceleration of the object in meters per second squared (m/s2). Show your calculations.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response consists of four parts:  shows or describes how to calculate the net force on the object, which is determined from the difference between the opposing forces  provides the correct answer for the net force on the object, which is 8N  shows or describes how to calculate the acceleration of the object, which is determined from the net force and mass of the object according to the equation F = ma  provides the correct answer for the acceleration of the object, which is 4  m/s2 when the force calculation is done correctly

Satisfactory Student response correctly addresses three parts of a complete response.

Essential Student response correctly addresses two parts of a complete response.

Partial Student response correctly addresses one part of a complete response.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

The following question  refer to the growth of bacteria.

A scientist studied the growth rate of a species of bacterium. The scientist introduced some of the bacteria into a flask of nutrient-rich solution and monitored the growth of the bacterial population by measuring the number of living cells in the solution.

 

The graph below shows the growth of the bacterial population over time in hours (h).

 

 

22.    Over which time period did the number of living bacteria increase at the greatest rate?

A.     Between hours 0 and 1

B.     Between hours 1 and 8

C.     Between hours 8 and 16

D.     Between hours 16 and 24

 

Key

 B

The following question  refer to the growth of bacteria.

A scientist studied the growth rate of a species of bacterium. The scientist introduced some of the bacteria into a flask of nutrient-rich solution and monitored the growth of the bacterial population by measuring the number of living cells in the solution.

 

The graph below shows the growth of the bacterial population over time in hours (h).

 

 

23.    Explain why the growth rate of the bacteria changed as it did during the following time periods. Refer to the data and your understanding of cellular processes and their regulation by internal and external environments

Between hours 6 and 12:

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Between hours 16 and 24:

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Scoring Guide

Score & Description:

This item was scored in 2 parts.

Part A: Between hours 6 and 12

Part B: Between hours 16 and 24

 

Part A:

 

 

Complete

 

Student response provides a complete explanation as to why the growth rate of the bacteria changed as it did during the period between hours 6 and 12. The response indicates what happened to the growth rate and explains a change in the environmental conditions that results in the change.

 

 

 

Partial

 

Student response provides an explanation that either indicates what happened to the growth rate or explains a change in the environmental conditions that results in the change.

 

OR

 

Student response indicates that the population number is slowing down or maintaining the same level and explains that this is due to an environmental change.

 

 

 

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect

 

Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

 

 

 

Part B:

 

 

Complete

 

Student response provides a complete explanation as to why the growth rate of the bacteria changed as it did during the period between hours 16 and 24. The response indicates what happened to the growth rate, including that bacterial cells are dying, and explains a change in the environmental conditions that results in the change.

 

 

 

Partial

 

Student response provides an explanation that either indicates what happened to the growth rate, indicates that bacterial cells are dying, or explains a change in the environmental conditions that results in the change.

 

OR

 

Student response indicates that the population number is decreasing and explains that this is due to an environmental change.

 

 

 

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect

 

Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

 

 

Composite Score:

 

Student response received one of four possible composite scores (Complete, Essential, Partial, Unsatisfactory/Incorrect) based on the student’s combined performance on Parts A and B of the item. For example, a student response Complete for Part A and Partial for Part B received a composite score of Essential.

 

Composite Score	Part A	Part B
Complete	Complete	Complete
Essential	Complete	Partial
Partial	Complete
Partial	Partial
Complete	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Complete
Partial	Partial	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Partial
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect

 

 

The following question  refer to the growth of bacteria.

A scientist studied the growth rate of a species of bacterium. The scientist introduced some of the bacteria into a flask of nutrient-rich solution and monitored the growth of the bacterial population by measuring the number of living cells in the solution.

 

The graph below shows the growth of the bacterial population over time in hours (h).

 

 

24.    The scientist wanted to determine the effect of an antibiotic on the growth of the bacterium. To a second flask of nutrient-rich solution with the bacterial cells, he added the antibiotic, and monitored the growth of the bacterial population.

 

 

The data showed that most of the bacteria in the solution died, but some survived. The scientist concluded that some of the bacteria were resistant to the antibiotic.

 

Explain why some of the bacteria were resistant to the antibiotic, based on the theory of evolution.

 

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response correctly explains that some of the bacteria resistant to the antibiotic had a genetic mutation. The resistant bacteria divided passing the genetic mutation to the next generation.

Partial Student response indicates that some of the bacteria resistant to the antibiotic had a genetic mutation. OR Student response indicates that the resistant bacteria divided, passing the genetic mutation to the next generation.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

The following question  refer to the following diagram, which shows a boy jumping on a trampoline.

 

25.    Which statement best explains the energy transfer as the boy moves from Position 1 to Position 2?

A.     The boy’s kinetic energy is transferred to the elastic potential energy of the trampoline.

B.     The boy’s gravitational potential energy is transferred to the elastic potential energy of the trampoline.

C.     The gravitational potential energy of the trampoline is transferred to the boy’s kinetic energy.

D.     The elastic potential energy of the trampoline is transferred to the boy’s kinetic energy.

 

Key

 D

The following question  refer to the following diagram, which shows a boy jumping on a trampoline.

 

26.    Which statement best explains the energy transfer as the boy moves from Position 2 to Position 3?

A.     The boy’s kinetic energy is transferred to the boy’s gravitational potential energy.

B.     The boy’s gravitational potential energy is transferred to the boy’s kinetic energy.

C.     The boy’s gravitational potential energy is transferred to the kinetic energy of the air molecules around him.

D.     The kinetic energy of the air molecules around the boy is transferred to the boy’s kinetic energy.

 

Key

 A

27.    A city block of land will be developed into a park with a playground. The soil on this site is contaminated to a depth of 18 centimeters with lead, which is harmful to humans and other organisms. The lead must be reduced to safe levels before the land is developed. Three methods of removing lead from the soil are described in the table below.

 

 

 

All of the treatment methods described will successfully reduce lead to safe levels. Each method has environmental advantages and disadvantages.

 

In the table below, identify one environmental advantage and one disadvantage specific to each method.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Scoring Guide

Score & Description:

This item was scored in 3 parts.

Part A: Advantage and disadvantage of removing the soil

Part B: Advantage and disadvantage of washing the soil

Part C: Advantage and disadvantage of growing mustard plants in the soil

 

Part A:

 

 

Complete

 

Student response identifies one correct environmental advantage and one correct environmental disadvantage of removing the soil.

 

 

 

Partial

 

Student response identifies either one correct environmental advantage or one correct environmental disadvantage.

 

 

 

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect

 

Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

 

 

 

Part B:

 

 

Complete

 

Student response identifies one correct environmental advantage and one correct environmental disadvantage of washing the soil.

 

 

 

Partial

 

Student response identifies either one correct environmental advantage or one correct environmental disadvantage.

 

 

 

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect

 

Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

 

 

 

Part C:

 

 

Complete

 

Student response identifies one correct environmental advantage and one correct environmental disadvantage of growing mustard plants in the soil.

 

 

 

Partial

 

Student response identifies either one correct environmental advantage or one correct environmental disadvantage.

 

 

 

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect

 

Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

 

 

Composite Score:

 

Student response received one of five possible composite scores (Complete, Satisfactory, Essential, Partial, Unsatisfactory/Incorrect) based on the student’s combined performance on Parts A, B, and C of the item. For example, a student response Complete for Part A, Complete for Part B, and Partial for Part C received a composite score of Satisfactory.

 

Composite Score	Part A	Part B	Part C
Complete	Complete	Complete	Complete
Satisfactory	Complete	Complete	Partial
Complete	Partial	Complete
Partial	Complete	Complete
Essential	Complete	Partial	Partial
Partial	Complete	Partial
Partial	Partial	Complete
Complete	Complete	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Complete	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Complete
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Complete	Complete
Partial	Partial	Partial
Complete	Partial	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Partial	Complete	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Complete	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Partial
Partial	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Complete
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Complete	Partial
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Partial	Complete
Partial	Partial	Partial	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Partial	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Partial
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Partial	Partial
Complete	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Complete	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Complete
Partial	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Partial	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Partial
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect	Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect

 

 

The following question  refer to the following diagram of forelimbs of different animals.

 

 

 

28.    Based on the anatomical structure of the forelimbs, which animal most likely evolved to live only in an aquatic (water) environment?

A.     1

B.     2

C.     3

D.     4

 

Key

 D

The following question  refer to the following diagram of forelimbs of different animals.

 

 

 

29.    Which statement best helps to explain how these different structures could arise from a common precursor?

A.     Mutations in the genes regulating limb development led to gradual changes in structure, which provided a selective advantage to the organisms.

B.     A single mutation in the genes regulating limb development resulted in a change in structure, which led to the modified limbs in offspring.

C.     Changes in the environment caused mutations in the genes regulating limb development, which provided a means to thrive under the new conditions.

D.     Limbs changed in response to the changing needs of the organisms, which led to the modified limbs in offspring.

 

Key

 A

30.    Two identical cups contain water at 30°C. Cup A contains 20 grams (g) of water, and Cup B contains 40 grams of water, as shown in the diagram below.

 

 

 

Which cup of water will release more thermal energy when it is allowed to reach the room temperature of 25°C?

 

  1. Cup A

  2. Cup B

  3. Both cups will release the same amount of thermal energy.

 

Explain your reasoning.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response selects (B) Cup  B and correctly explains that the amount of thermal energy released depends on the mass of the material and its change in temperature. Response demonstrates understanding that since the temperature change is the same in both cups of water, Cup  B, with the greater mass, releases more thermal energy.

Essential Student response selects (B) with an explanation that relates the amount of thermal energy released to the greater mass of water in Cup  B.

Partial Student response selects (B) with no explanation. OR   Student response selects (A) or (C) but provides an explanation that relates the amount of thermal energy released to the greater mass of water in Cup  B.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect.

 

31.    What is a property of all galaxies?

A.     All galaxies have a spiral shape.

B.     All galaxies are the same size.

C.     All galaxies contain a large number of stars.

D.     All galaxies rotate around a central star.

 

Key

 C

32.    What is the main reason that water has the ability to dissolve many different substances?

A.     Water has a lower molecular mass than many substances.

B.     Water molecules attract ions and the charged parts of molecules.

C.     Water molecules are larger than the ions or molecules they dissolve.

D.     Water is more dense in the liquid phase than in the solid phase.

 

Key

 B

33.    Coal, petroleum, and natural gas found underground in certain parts of Earth are primarily formed from which process?

A.     Decay of radioactive elements

B.     Collision of tectonic plates in earthquakes

C.     Transformation of dead plants and animals under heat and pressure

D.     Intrusion of water into the soil that breaks up rocks and minerals

 

Key

 C

34.    Which equation represents a chemical change?

A.    

B.    

C.    

D.    

 

Key

 C

 

 

Additional Information [1]

Questions 1-14 are based on the following information.

The following data for the Sun and the four inner planets of the Solar System have been observed.     Mean Distance from the Sun (million kilometers) Diameter (kilometers)   Sun   1,400,000   Mercury 58 4,900   Venus 108 12,100   Earth 150 12,800   Mars 228 6,800       In a simplified model of the Solar System, the planets revolve around the Sun in circular orbits, all in the same plane. Each planet has a different period of revolution. Also, each planet is a sphere that rotates about an axis through its center, but with a different period of rotation. In this model the axis of rotation of each planet is perpendicular to the plane of the orbit.

 

 

Additional Information [2]

Questions 1-8 refer to the following passage

The following paragraphs were adapted from an article in the March 1990 issue of Discover magazine.   THE ULTIMATE MEDICINE   Broken genes cause a variety of illnesses. Genetic surgeons can now go into a cell and fix those genes with an unlikely scalpel: a virus.   by Geoffrey Montgomery   The first time Richard Mulligan turned a virus into a truck, he was a 25-year-old graduate student. He had just performed an unprecedented feat of bioengineering — he had used the tools of recombinant DNA technology to splice a rabbit gene into a monkey virus. Normally, viruses are vehicles for their own genes. In fact, they are little more than genetic material wrapped within a shell that allows the virus to travel from one cell to the next. They penetrate a cell, then commandeer the cell’s genetic machinery into making thousands of virus copies. But with molecular sleight of hand, Mulligan had pulled out the genes that allow the virus to replicate and put in their place the genes for hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that carries oxygen. Mulligan hoped that the genetically modified virus would no longer tell the cell it had entered to make more virus particles. It would just order hemoglobin proteins.   Mulligan assembled his fleet of viral "trucks," all with the hemoglobin gene in their cargo bay. Then he dumped a soupy solution of these viruses into a dish of cells from a monkey’s kidney. Kidney cells have no roles in oxygen transport and do not normally make hemoglobin molecules. But these kidney cells, after their invasion by Mulligan’s viruses, underwent an astonishing transformation. Spurred on by the unloaded hemoglobin genes, the kidney cells began to churn out hemoglobin molecules.   With those hemoglobin proteins, Mulligan had ushered in a revolutionary new vision of therapy for human genetic disease. His path-breaking gene-transfer experiment suggested that one could transform viruses, nature’s parasites, into molecular ambulances capable of shuttling beneficial genes into ailing cells. It was more than a major event in basic biological research. It signaled the dawn of a new era of medicine, in which physicians would be able to reach down into the molecular foundations of a disease and cure an ailment by correcting its cause.

 

 

Question 1 refers to Additional Information [1]                                                 

1.   In the space below, draw a rough sketch (not necessarily to scale) illustrating the simplified model of the Solar System by showing the Sun and the four inner planets with their orbits. Be sure to label the Sun and each planet.

 

Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an understanding of a simple model of the Solar System by translating a description of a conceptual model to a representation in the form of a picture. Student response shows all of the following:    The Sun and the four inner planets.  All 5 components properly labeled and in the correct order in terms of distance from the Sun.  Non-intersecting orbits that are approximately circular with the Sun at their centers.

Partial Student response shows one of the following:  The Sun and 2 to 3 planets with 3 or more of the components properly labeled, and the orbits shown will be approximately circular, non-intersecting, and encircling the Sun.  The Sun and 3 to 4 planets, all components properly labeled, placed in correct order with no orbits shown.  The Sun and 4 planets, with no labels, with circular orbits shown.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect The diagram is missing essential parts such as the Sun or several planets, or shows unlabeled or incorrectly placed planets with no orbits, intersecting orbits or orbits not encircling the Sun.

 

Question 2 refers to Additional Information [1]                                                 

2.   List two ways that the simplified model is different from the real Solar System.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an understanding of models not being identical to the objects they represent by pointing out some differences between the real Solar System and a simplified conceptual model. Student response identifies two correct ways in which the real Solar System is different from the model. Each of the following is one correct difference:     1. In the real Solar System orbits are not circular.   2. Orbits are not all in the same plane.   3. Planets are not perfect spheres.   4. Axes of rotation are not exactly perpendicular to the planes of the orbits.   5. The planets are actually much larger.   6. The distance between planets (or from Sun) is actually much greater.   7. The picture is not to correct scale.   8. The planets are actually not in the positions shown (or lined up).   9. The real solar system is 3-dimensional.   10. The picture does not show motion (or rotation or revolution).   11. The real solar system has more planets (or moons or rings).

Partial Student response identifies one correct way in which the real Solar System is different from the model.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response fails to identify any correct ways in which the real Solar System is different from the model.

 

Question 3 refers to Additional Information [1]                                                 

3.   If you were to redraw the sketch you made for question 1 to a correct scale with 1 centimeter = 1,000,000 kilometers, what problems would you encounter? Use diagrams or calculations as appropriate.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an understanding of scale in a model by indicating the problems with both the large size of the orbits (need larger piece of paper) and the small size of the planets in the representation. OR   Only one of the two problems is mentioned, and the large size of orbit or the small size of planet, is quantitatively determined. The relevant distances are:     Radius of orbit Diameter   Sun   1.4 cm   Mercury 58 cm = 0.58 m 4.9 X 10  cm = 0.049 mm   Venus 108 cm = 1.08 m 12.1 X 10  cm = 0.121 mm   Earth 150 cm = 1.5 m 12.8 X 10  cm = 0.128 mm   Mars 228 cm = 2.28 m 6.8 X 10  cm = 0.068 mm

Partial Student response indicates either the extra large size of the paper needed to represent the orbits, or the extremely small size of the planets using this scale. OR   Response shows a correct calculation, but does not specifically state either problem.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response fails to mention anything about the size of the diagram, the sizes of the orbits, or the sizes of the Sun or planets needed in a correctly scaled representation, or size is mentioned incorrectly, e.g., the sketch would be very small.

 

Question 4 refers to Additional Information [1]                                                 

4.   Draw a sketch showing how Earth and Venus can be 258 million kilometers apart and explain how this can occur. Indicate the orbits around the Sun for each.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates both an understanding of the changing alignment of planets as they move around the Sun and an ability to find a possible location of two planets when they are a specified distance apart. Student response contains a sketch that shows Earth and Venus at opposing ends of their respective orbits and provides a correct explanation of the sketch, referring to the different rates at which planets move around their orbits.

Partial Student response contains a sketch that shows Earth and Venus on opposing sides of their respective orbits, but does not include a correct explanation of the sketch. OR   The sketch is incorrect or missing, but the response contains an explanation recognizing that Earth and Venus do not stay fixed relative to each other but travel at different rates around their orbits.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response does not show a sketch with Earth and Venus at opposing ends of their respective orbits, and there is no explanation about the differing rates at which planet move around their orbits.

 

Question 5 refers to Additional Information [1]                                                 

5.   The table below gives additional information about the planets: their periods of revolution about the Sun and rotation about their axes.

 

 

 

Planet	Mean Distance from the Sun (million  kilometers)	Period of Revolution (Earth time)	Period of Rotation (Earth time)
Mercury	58	88 days	59 days
Venus	108	225 days	243 days
Earth	150	365 days	23.9 hours
Mars	228	687 days	24.6 hours

 

Which planet has the longest year in Earth time?

A.     Mercury

B.     Venus

C.     Earth

D.     Mars

 

Key

 D

Question 6 refers to Additional Information [1]                                                 

6.   The table below gives additional information about the planets: their periods of revolution about the Sun and rotation about their axes.

 

Planet	Mean Distance from the Sun (million  kilometers)	Period of Revolution (Earth time)	Period of Rotation (Earth time)
Mercury	58	88 days	59 days
Venus	108	225 days	243 days
Earth	150	365 days	23.9 hours
Mars	228	687 days	24.6 hours

 

 

 

 

A calendar for a Martian year would contain approximately how many Martian days (not Earth days)?

A.     230

B.     360

C.     670

D.     700

 

Key

 C

Question 7 refers to Additional Information [1]                                                 

7.   The table below gives additional information about the planets: their periods of revolution about the Sun and rotation about their axes.

 

 

 

Planet	Mean Distance from the Sun (million  kilometers)	Period of Revolution (Earth time)	Period of Rotation (Earth time)
Mercury	58	88 days	59 days
Venus	108	225 days	243 days
Earth	150	365 days	23.9 hours
Mars	228	687 days	24.6 hours

 

 

 

 

On the graph below, plot a point for each of the four planets showing the planet’s period of revolution and its mean distance from the Sun. Then draw the line or curve that best illustrates the relationship between the period of revolution and the mean distance from the Sun that is suggested by the points.

 

 

Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an ability to plot data points on a graph and show a curve that fits the points reasonably well. Student response shows 3 or 4 data points plotted correctly with an acceptable curve. An acceptable curve is smooth, slightly concave upward without any inflection points, and passes through all the plotted points. Ranges (in 10 km): x – axis y – axis   Mercury 55-60 80-90   Venus 105-110 220-230   Earth point should be touching 150 line 360-370   Mars 225-230 680-690

Partial Student response shows 3 or 4 data points plotted correctly with unacceptable or no curve, OR   2 data points plotted correctly with acceptable or unacceptable curve,   OR   1 data point plotted correctly with acceptable curve.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response shows 2 data points plotted correctly with no curve, OR   1 data point plotted correctly with unacceptable curve,   OR   0 points are plotted correctly, regardless of curve.

 

Question 8 refers to Additional Information [1]                                                 

8.   The table below gives additional information about the planets: their periods of revolution about the Sun and rotation about their axes.

 

 

 

Planet	Mean Distance from the Sun (million  kilometers)	Period of Revolution (Earth time)	Period of Rotation (Earth time)
Mercury	58	88 days	59 days
Venus	108	225 days	243 days
Earth	150	365 days	23.9 hours
Mars	228	687 days	24.6 hours

 

Suppose that a new planet (Planet  P) is discovered and it has a period of revolution of 500 Earth days. What, if anything, could you predict about the mean distance of Planet  P from the Sun based on the graph in question 7? Explain why you could or could not make this prediction.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an ability to interpolate from a graph to make a prediction and to realize that this can be done because the graph suggests a functional relationship between the quantities. Student response gives an answer for the mean distance that is consistent with the drawn graph, and gives a satisfactory explanation of how it was determined or why it could be determined. The following are acceptable (even if not exactly precise) explanations relating a planet’s period to its mean distance from the Sun:  One is a linear function of the other  One is directly proportional to the other  One is an exponential function of the other  One is a quadratic function of the other  One is a parabolic function of the other

Partial Student response states that the mean distance is between that of Earth and Mars (or states range of approximately 150 – 228 million km). OR   Response explains how to determine mean distance, but does not actually follow through with a prediction.   OR   Response gives a correct mean distance consistent with the graph, but gives no explanation.   OR   Response gives an incorrect prediction but provides a good explanation.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response states that nothing (or something irrelevant) can be predicted from the graph, or gives an answer for the mean distance that is inconsistent with the graph drawn in question 7.

 

Question 9 refers to Additional Information [1]                                                 

9.   The table below gives additional information about the planets: their periods of revolution about the Sun and rotation about their axes.

 

 

 

Planet	Mean Distance from the Sun (million  kilometers)	Period of Revolution (Earth time)	Period of Rotation (Earth time)
Mercury	58	88 days	59 days
Venus	108	225 days	243 days
Earth	150	365 days	23.9 hours
Mars	228	687 days	24.6 hours

 

Describe how you could best determine, from the data given on page 6, the speed of the Earth in kilometers per day as it moves in its orbit around the Sun.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an understanding of both speed of an object and the geometry of a circle by describing how to calculate the speed of a planet of known orbital radius and period of revolution. Student response recognizes that speed is distance divided by time, and that in one complete revolution the distance is 2  times the radius of the orbit and time is the period of revolution. The response does not have to provide a numerical calculation.         d    2r   2 (150 x 10  km)       v   =  —   =  ———   =  ————————   =  2.6 x 10  km/day         t      t         365 days

Essential Student response recognizes that the speed is the circumference of the orbit divided by the period of revolution, but does not indicate how to determine the circumference.

Partial Student response recognizes only that a speed is distance divided by a time ( v = d/t), or equivalently that distance equals speed multiplied by time ( d = vt), but indicates neither a correct distance nor time. Response may falsely interpret the radius of the orbit as the distance, or the period of rotation as the period of revolution.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response does not recognize that the estimate involves dividing distance by a time.

 

Question 10 refers to Additional Information [1]                                               

10.    As observed with special instruments from Earth, the Sun appears in the sky to be slightly larger in January than in July. Which of the following accounts for this observation?

A.     The Earth moves in an orbit that is not circular but is closer to the Sun in January than in July.

B.     The diameter of the Earth is not constant, but bulges slightly at the Equator and contracts slightly during the winter.

C.     The Earth’s orbit is not in the same plane as the orbits of the other planets.

D.     The axis of rotation of the Earth is not perpendicular to the plane of its orbit but instead is tilted at an angle.

 

Key

 A

Question 11 refers to Additional Information [1]                                               

11.    What extensions or modifications could be made to the simplified model of the Solar System to explain why the Northern Hemisphere is colder in January than in July? You may draw a diagram as part of your answer.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an understanding of the seasons and the ability to extend and refine a model by describing the necessary modifications to this model that will account for the seasons. Student response states that the Earth’s axis is tilted away from the Sun in January (toward the Sun in summer), or shows a picture indicating such a tilt. OR   Response states that the Earth’s axis is tilted causing one of the following to occur: the Northern Hemisphere receives less direct sunlight (or heat) in January than in July; the Northern Hemisphere in January receives sunlight for fewer hours of the day; sunlight has to travel through more of the atmosphere, causing it to be more diffuse.

Partial Student response states only that the effect is caused by the tilt of the Earth’s axis.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student demonstrates no understanding of why the Northern Hemisphere is colder in January than in July.

 

Question 12 refers to Additional Information [1]                                               

12.    One early simple model of the atom is very similar to the model of the Solar System described before question 1. In the space below, draw a sketch of this simple model of an atom, labeling its components.

 

Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates understanding of the structure of an atom by sketching a diagram that shows all of the following:   1. The nucleus or proton/neutron cluster, labeled as "nucleus" or "proton and neutrons" or "proton".   2. At least one labeled electron.   3. An indication that the electron(s) orbits around the nucleus (by showing one or more circle around it).

Partial Student demonstrates partial understanding of the structure of an atom by sketching a correct diagram with labels that are correct but not complete. The diagram shows the nucleus and the orbit(s) with or without electrons, with at least one component labeled correctly. No component is labeled incorrectly.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student diagram demonstrates no understanding of the structure of an atom by showing any of the following:   1. The nucleus, protons, neutrons or electrons placed incorrectly.   2. No orbits.   3. Items such as molecules, biological cell components, etc., shown as parts of the atom.

 

Question 13 refers to Additional Information [1]                                               

13.    Describe two similarities and two differences between this model of the atom and the simplified model of the Solar System.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an understanding of the simple models of the Solar System and the atom by pointing out two similarities and two differences between these two models.

Essential Student response contains two correct similarities and one correct difference or one correct similarity and two correct differences.

Adequate Student response contains one correct similarity and one correct difference, or two correct similarities or two correct differences.

Partial Student response contains one correct similarity or difference.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response contains no correct similarities and no correct differences.

 

Credited similarities:

 

  1. Most mass in center,

or: nucleus/Sun at center,

or: both systems have a central mass/object.

  2. Orbits are nearly circular.

  3. Attractive force between central and orbiting objects (central force).

  4. Objects in orbit,

or: there are orbits around a center.

  5. Items rotate on an axis (electrons/planets).

  6. Analogous components: Sun similar to nucleus, planets similar to electrons.

  7. Both models are simplified views of complex ideas.

  8. Both systems are always in motion.

Credited differences:

 

  1. Size or scale of objects/distances between objects.

  2. Nature of forces between orbiting and central objects (i.e. electrostatic vs. gravitational).

  3. Period of revolution of orbiting objects.

  4. More than one electron is possible in each orbit, as opposed to only one planet per orbit in Solar System.

  5. Composed of different components with some mention of what the different components are.

  6. The shapes of the orbits are different.

 

Question 14 refers to Additional Information [1]                                               

14.    A planetary model of a system, such as the models of the Solar System and the atom discussed here, is appropriate whenever the components of the system and the nature of the forces between them have certain properties. Which of the following might be some of these properties?

A.     One of the components is much more massive than the others and exerts an attractive force on each of the other components.

B.     One of the components is much more massive than the others and exerts a force on each of the other components that is perpendicular to the line connecting their centers.

C.     All the components are equally massive, are far apart, and attract each other.

D.     All the components are equally massive, are close together, and repel each other.

 

Key

 A

15.    Animals that reproduce sexually differ from animals that reproduce asexually in that sexually reproducing animals have

A.     a larger number of offspring

B.     more genetic variation among their offspring

C.     offspring that are nearly identical to their parents

D.     offspring that are perfectly adapted to their parents’ habitat

 

Key

 B

X -> Y + Z + energy

 

16.    The equation above represents a nuclear decay, in which nucleus  X decays into particle  Y and nucleus  Z and releases energy. Which of the following can explain why energy is released in the decay?

A.     The mass of  X is less than the sum of the masses of  Y and  Z.

B.     The mass of  X is less than the difference between the masses of  Y and  Z.

C.     The mass of  X is greater than the sum of the masses of  Y and  Z.

D.     The mass of  X is greater than the difference between the masses of  Y and  Z.

 

Key

 C

17.    Carbon-14 has a half-life of approximately 5,700 years. Analysis of the carbon in a piece of charred wood found in an excavation revealed that the carbon has 25 percent of the amount of carbon-14 that is found in the carbon of living trees. Which of the following is most nearly the age of the excavated wood?

A.     160 years

B.     5,700 years

C.     11,400 years

D.     23,000 years

 

Key

 C

18.    Air in the atmosphere continuously moves by convection. At the equator, air rises; at the poles, it sinks. This occurs because

A.     the Earth’s ozone layer is thinner at the equator than at the poles

B.     the Earth’s magnetic field is stronger at the poles than at the equator

C.     warm air can hold less water vapor than can cold air

D.     warm air is less dense than cold air

 

Key

 D

 

 

19.    The diagram above shows a cross section of the edge of a continent. In this region a section of oceanic crust is gradually moving down under a section of continental crust. Explain how the mountain range near the seacoast on this continent was probably formed.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response gives a complete explanation that explains how mountains can form at convergent plate boundaries.   1. Continental crust is pushed up when oceanic crust collides with it   2. Continental crust rises as oceanic crust is subducted under it

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response may only describe the picture or simply state that the tectonic plates collide.

 

 

 

20.    The diagram above shows a cross section of two river valleys. In each diagram, the river is represented by the shaded region. Which river valley is in its more mature stage of development? What two features in the diagrams make you think so?

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response indicates an understanding of the developmental stages of a river valley by giving two specific reasons why river valley II is more mature than river valley I. Credited specific reasons:    The walls of valley I are steeper  Valley II is wider  The walls of valley II have undergone more erosion  Valley II shows the existence of a flood plain  The river in valley II has natural levees  The river in valley II is wider

Partial Student response indicates an understanding of the developmental stages of a river valley by giving one specific reason or at least one general reason why river valley II is more mature than river valley I. Credited general reasons:    The shape of the valley  The width of the river

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response indicates that river valley I is more mature or river valley II without any reasons.

 

21.    A 10-liter sample of CO  gas contains the same number of molecules as how many liters of O  gas at the same temperature and pressure?

A.     5 liters

B.     10 liters

C.     20 liters

D.     30 liters

 

Key

 B

22.    According to evolutionary theory, which of the following evolutionary trees best describes the relationship between groups of vertebrates?

A.    

B.    

C.    

D.    

 

Key

 B

23.    Which of the following is NOT a part of Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection?

A.     Individuals in a population vary in many ways.

B.     Some individuals possess features that enable them to survive better than individuals lacking those features.

C.     More offspring are produced than can generally survive.

D.     Changes in an individual’s genetic material are usually harmful.

 

Key

 D

24.    During the time in the Earth’s history when the first amphibians appeared, which of the following was one of the major groups of plants that dominated the land habitats?

A.     Cone-bearing trees (gymnosperms)

B.     Flowering plants (angiosperms)

C.     Ferns

D.     Algae

 

Key

 C

25.    In a laboratory, 10 moles of He gas (atomic mass 4.0) were placed in a rigid 2-liter tank. The tank had a small pinhole leak and the He gas escaped. If 10 moles of Ar gas (atomic mass 40) had been placed instead in the tank at the same temperature, predict whether the Ar would have leaked out at the same rate, more quickly, or less quickly than the He gas did. Explain your prediction.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an understanding of the kinetic theory of gases by predicting that argon (Ar) gas would leak out more slowly than helium gas and explaining that, at the same temperature, the average speed of argon atoms is less than that of helium atoms. (The explanation that the average speed of argon atoms is smaller due to their larger mass is optional.) OR   Student predicts that helium (He) gas leaks more quickly, because He atoms move more quickly.

Partial Student correctly predicts that argon would leak out more slowly, but does not explain that the average speed of argon atoms is less than that of helium atoms. OR   Student mentions the slower atomic speed of argon without commenting on the rate of effusion.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student incorrectly predicts that argon would effuse more quickly or at the same rate as helium.

 

The following question One characteristic that can be used to identify pure metals is density. If you determine the density of a pure metal, you can determine what the metal is, as shown in the table below.

 

 

26.    Suppose that you have been given a ring and want to determine if it is made of pure gold. Design a procedure for determining the density of the ring. Explain the steps you would follow, including the equipment that you would use, and how you would use this equipment to determine the ring’s density.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates the ability to design a procedure to determine the density of a solid object by describing a procedure similar to the procedure presented below. Step A. Weigh ring using a scale, recording its mass (M),       OR "find the weight of the ring".   Step B. Put the ring in a graduated cylinder that has water in it and record the volume (V) of water displaced. The volume of water displaced equals the volume of water in the cylinder with the ring in it less the volume of the water before the ring was put in the cylinder.   Step C. Calculate the density (D), according to the formula D = M/V.

Essential Student response describes two of the steps presented above.

Partial Student response describes one of the steps presented above.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response does not mention any of the steps presented above. OR   Student response confuses quantities such as weight or volume with density.

 

The following question One characteristic that can be used to identify pure metals is density. If you determine the density of a pure metal, you can determine what the metal is, as shown in the table below.

 

 

 

 

27.    Suppose that you determine that the ring has a density of 15.3 grams/cm . Assuming that the ring is a mixture of some combination of the metals listed in the table, what can you determine about its composition from its calculated density? Explain your answer.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response states that the ring is not pure gold but must contain some gold. Response may reason that the density of the ring (15.3 g/cm ) is less than the density of gold (19.3 g/cm ), but more than the density of any of the other metals. Response must also state that the identity of the other metals in the ring cannot be determined from the given information.

Partial Student response identifies gold as being one of the metals in the mixture and may choose others based on such factors as averaging densities. Response does not state that the identity of the other metals in the ring cannot be determined from the given information.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response does not identify gold as one of the metals in the mixture, or states that the ring is made of pure gold.

 

The following question Suppose that you are asked to design and create an information poster about Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) for your high school and need to include the answers to some important questions. Answer the following questions to summarize the information that you would include in your poster.

 

28.    What kind of infectious agent causes AIDS and how does this agent affect the systems of the body?

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an understanding that the HIV virus causes AIDS by suppressing or destroying the immune system, thereby making the immune system unable to combat new infections.

Essential Student response states that the HIV virus causes AIDS by suppressing or destroying the immune system, but does not mention that the immune system is thus unable to combat new infections.

Partial Student response states only that AIDS is caused by a virus (or the HIV virus). OR   Student response states only that AIDS suppresses or destroys the immune system without any more details.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response demonstrates no knowledge of what causes AIDS nor does it describe the effect of AIDS on the immune system.

 

The following question Suppose that you are asked to design and create an information poster about Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) for your high school and need to include the answers to some important questions. Answer the following questions to summarize the information that you would include in your poster.

 

29.    Describe four distinct ways in which AIDS can be transmitted.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student describes four distinct modes of AIDS transmission as outlined below. Distinct modes include:    Sexual contact and/or mention of bodily fluid exchange  Kissing someone with an open sore/cut in their mouth  Drug needles  Tattoo needles  Transfusion with infected blood, or mention of blood alone  Bone marrow transplant if donor is infected  Usage of non-sterile equipment in a medical setting  Blood to blood contact  Transmission from mother to child in birth process  Breast milk

Essential Student describes three distinct modes of AIDS transmission.

Partial Student describes one or two distinct modes of AIDS transmission.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student describes none of the known modes of AIDS transmission.

 

The following question Suppose that you are asked to design and create an information poster about Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) for your high school and need to include the answers to some important questions. Answer the following questions to summarize the information that you would include in your poster.

 

30.    Describe two distinct ways in which the transmission of AIDS can be prevented.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student describes two methods of preventing AIDS transmission. Distinct methods include:    Abstinence  Use of condoms ��� Testing blood supply for AIDS virus  Using sterilized needles  Avoid getting pregnant if HIV positive  Avoid other people’s blood

Partial Student describes one method of preventing AIDS transmission.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student describes no method of preventing AIDS transmission.

 

Question 31 refers to Additional Information [2]                                               

31.    Based on your knowledge of genetics and the information in the preceding passage, answer the following questions.

What is a gene? What is it made of? What is the major function of a gene?

 

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response demonstrates an understanding of what a gene is, what it is made of, and its major function. The definition of a gene can be stated in terms of its function. Credited Responses Include. Gene:  A unit of hereditary material.  A code for a particular trait of characteristic.   Structure:  Made of Deoxyribonucleic acids (DNA).  Double Helix of nitrogenous bases.   Gene/Function:    Codes for a particular protein (or polypeptide).  Blueprint for protein.

Essential These responses address what a gene is in general terms (e.g., a unit of hereditary material) and what it is made of (DNA). They indicate no understanding of its role in protein or polypeptide production.

Partial These responses address either what a gene is in general terms or what it is made of.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect These responses demonstrate no understanding of a gene or its function.

 

Question 32 refers to Additional Information [2]                                               

32.    The article’s introduction states that "Broken genes cause a variety of illnesses." Describe what is meant by a "broken gene." In other words, explain what makes a gene unable to work in the correct way, and describe what can cause a gene to become "broken."

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response states that the structure of a gene may contain a change or mutation such as a base pair substitution, insertion, deletion, translocation, or inversion that causes the gene to provide an "abnormal" set of instructions. They also state that mutations can be caused by such things as radiation and chemicals.

Partial Student response   1. explains that a broken gene provides incorrect information to a cell, or   2. gives a general description of what it means for a gene to be "broken" (e.g., "sometimes a mutation happens", or "a gene mutates") and a cause such as UV light, or   3. states that a broken gene results from a mutation , or   4. states what can cause a mutation.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response provides no information demonstrating an understanding of "broken genes."

 

Question 33 refers to Additional Information [2]                                               

33.    In Richard Mulligan’s experiment, a hemoglobin gene was carried in a virus. After the virus infected some kidney cells, the hemoglobin gene "told" the cells to make hemoglobin molecules. Briefly explain how the information that a gene provides to a cell results in the production of a molecule such as hemoglobin.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response provides a description that states or implis an understanding of the transcription of DNA to mRNA and the translation of RNA to protein (minor errors may be present).

Partial Student response provides part of the process of protein synthesis, for example, mRNA is transcribed from DNA (minor errors may be present).

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response provides no information demonstrating an understanding of the processes by which proteins are synthesized.

 

Question 34 refers to Additional Information [2]                                               

34.    Biologists know that nearly all cells in a person’s body contain the same genes. For example, kidney cells contain the same genes as the cells that normally make hemoglobin. Given these facts, explain why kidney cells do not make hemoglobin even though they contain the hemoglobin gene.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response states that even though all cells in a person’s body contain the same genetic information, different cells "use" different parts of this information at different times, i.e., the gene for hemoglobin may be "turned off" in kidney cells, but "turned on" in hemoglobin-manufacturing cells.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response demonstrates no understanding of what causes different cells to perform different functions.

 

Question 35 refers to Additional Information [2]                                               

35.    Recombinant DNA technology as described in the article is believed to have great promise in treating certain diseases. Give an example of an inherited disease that people might be able to treat by use of this technology, and explain how you think the technology might be used to treat this disease.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response identifies a disease that has a possible or established genetic link for which applications of recombinant DNA technology could be used to develop a treatment. The response must also provide a brief general description of how this might be accomplished (e.g., PKU, replace the defective gene with a normal one)

Partial Student response   1. identifies a disease that has a possible or established genetic link, with little or no explanation, OR   2. provides some description of how applications of recombinant DNA technology might be used to treat a disease, but does not mention a disease that may be effectively treated this way.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect These responses fail to identify a disease or identify a disease that does not have an established genetic link and provide no explanation of how recombinant DNA technology might be used to treat the disease.

 

Question 36 refers to Additional Information [2]                                               

36.    Give an example of a disease that could probably not be treated by use of recombinant DNA technology, and explain why you think that this technology could not be used to treat this disease.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response identifies a correct example of a disease that most likely could not be treated using recombinant DNA technology and gives a correct justification such as the disease is not genetic.

Partial Student response   1. identifies a correct example of a disease, or   2. provides a correct justification but no disease is chosen, or   3. provides an inappropriate disease but understand that a non-hereditary condition most likely cannot be treated with recombinant DNA technology.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response provides no information demonstrating an understanding that certain diseases are not genetic and most likely cannot be treated using recombinant DNA technology.

 

Question 37 refers to Additional Information [2]                                               

37.    Describe two beneficial ways, other than treating diseases, in which recombinant DNA technology might be used.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response provides two possible examples of potential uses of recombinant DNA technology. Credited responses include:    Improvement of agricultural crop production.  Mass production of bio-chemicals/medications by bacteria.  Improvement of milk/beef production. ��� Development of frost-resistant crops.  Augmenting characteristic such as stature and appearance.

Partial Student response provides one possible example of a potential use of recombinant DNA technology.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response provides no information regarding the potential use of recombinant DNA technology.

 

Question 38 refers to Additional Information [2]                                               

38.    Some people believe that recombinant DNA technology has serious disadvantages. Describe one disadvantage that might result from the use of recombinant DNA technology. Then describe a plan or a policy for dealing with the disadvantage that could be followed by research scientists, doctors, public officials, or other people who are involved with recombinant DNA technology and its uses.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response describes a reasonable disadvantage of recombinant DNA technology and provide a clear description of a plan for dealing with the disadvantage. Credited disadvantages include:    Regulation of new strains  Production of dangerous organisms  Genetic Similarity – loss of diversity  Regulation of applications/patents   Credited acceptable plans include:    Informed consent �� Regulation  Thorough testing  Oversight committee

Essential Student response describes a reasonable disadvantage and attempts a brief description of a plan for dealing with this disadvantage (e.g., test or observe, research further). OR   Student response provides only a description of a plan.

Partial Student response describes a reasonable disadvantage of genetic technology but do not develop a plan for dealing with the disadvantage.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response states that there are no disadvantages, or states a disadvantage that is inaccurate or unreasonable.

 

1.   Household appliances convert electricity into one or more different forms of energy. An electric fan can best be described as converting electricity into

A.     heat energy only

B.     heat energy and sound energy only

C.     heat energy, sound energy, and mechanical energy only

D.     heat energy, sound energy, mechanical energy, and chemical energy

 

Key

 C

2.   Each figure below shows a force measured in newtons pushing on a block. If there are no other forces pushing on the block, in which case is the acceleration of the block greatest?

A.    

B.    

C.    

D.    

 

Key

 C

 

3.   The picture above shows the positions of two runners at  one-second intervals as they move from left to right. For each runner, indicate whether the runner’s speed seems to be constant, increasing, or decreasing.

 

Explain how you can tell this from the pictures.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student correctly indicates that Runner 1 has a constant speed (or moves at a steady pace) because equal distances are covered each second, and that Runner 2′s speed is increasing because increasing distances are covered in each successive second (spacing increases).

Essential Student correctly indicates the speed of Runner 1 (constant or moves at a steady pace) and Runner 2 (increasing), and gives a correct explanation for one of the runners.

Partial Student correctly indicates the speed of Runner 1 (constant or moves at a steady pace), and Runner 2 (increasing) but gives no explanation. OR Student response correctly indicates speed of one runner with explanation.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student indicates no or only one correct speed.

 

4.   Tom’s younger brother is learning how to read a thermometer and asks, "Why does the red stuff in the thermometer go up when it gets hot outside?" What is a correct explanation that Tom can give to his brother?

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student explains that heat from the air causes the liquid in the thermometer to heat up  and expand (or get less dense), which in turn causes the liquid to move up the thermometer.

Partial Student provides a partially correct explanation, but does not mention that the liquid expands (e.g., "the liquid in the thermometer heats up," "the liquid is sensitive to heat") or just says "it expands" with no reference to temperature or heat.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student does not provide a correct explanation based on the expansion of the heated liquid (e.g., cites "air pressure," or "heat pressure"), or only mentions the thermometer as a whole (e.g., "the thermometer gets hot"), or only describes the function of a thermometer (e.g., "when the weather is hot, the red stuff goes up").

 

5.   A person produces two sound waves with a flute, one immediately after the other. Both sound waves have the same pitch, but the second one is louder. Which of the following properties is greater for the second sound wave?

A.     Frequency

B.     Amplitude

C.     Wavelength

D.     Speed in air

 

Key

 B

6.   Explain how you can find out the volume of a solid object, such as a small rock, using only water and either a measuring cup or a graduated cylinder.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student correctly describes how to determine the volume of a solid object using water and a measuring cup or graduated cylinder. Comparison or change in volume of water should be explicit. Method A:  Pour some water into the graduated cylinder  Record the water level  Then put the rock in the graduated cylinder  Record the water level again  The difference between the first and second volume measurements is the volume of the rock     Method B: Spillage Responses = Fill cup (to the top), add rock, catch the water that overflows in separate container, and measure the overflow. Overflow = volume of the rock.

Partial Student gives the first four of the steps involved in measuring the volume of a solid object, but does not compare the change in water level or mentions three or fewer of the steps but does discuss the change in water level. Method A: Procedure (steps a-d above) or volume calculation (step e)     OR   Method B: Procedure, including measuring the overflow or stating the overflow equals the volume of the rock

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student demonstrates no understanding of how to use water and a graduated cylinder to measure volume.

 

7.   Look at the two pictures below. They show what happened when two solid blocks were each put in a jar containing a liquid. Based just on what you can see in the pictures, what can you say about the blocks and the jars?

         

 

A.     The liquid in the jars must be water.

B.     The block in jar 1 weighs more than the block in jar 2.

C.     The block in jar 1 is floating lower in its liquid than is the block in jar 2.

D.     The block in jar 1 must be made of metal and the block in jar 2 must be made of wood.

 

Key

 C

8.   Is a hamburger an example of stored energy? Explain why or why not.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response indicates "yes" and states that a hamburger contains fat (grease), protein, carbohydrate, nutrients and gives some indication of energy transfer. OR Student response indicates "yes" and traces the energy through the food chain.

Partial Student response indicates "yes" and states that a hamburger contains fat (grease), protein, carbohydrates, nutrients. OR Student response indicates "yes" and states that transfer of energy takes place. OR Student response indicates "yes" and states that food is energy/meat is energy/ meat contains energy.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student demonstrates no understanding of the concept of stored energy by answering "no", or answers "yes" and gives no or an incorrect or irrelevant response.

 

 

9.   If you breathe on a mirror, part of the mirror clouds up. What are you actually seeing when you see the mirror cloud up?

A.     Water droplets that formed from cooled water vapor in your breath

B.     Carbon dioxide that you are breathing out from your lungs

C.     Oxygen that you are breathing out from your lungs

D.     Cooled nitrogen in the air around you

 

Key

 A

 

10.    Suppose you are riding in a car along the highway at 55 miles per hour when a truck pulls up along the side of your car. This truck seems to stand still for a moment, and then it seems to be moving backward.Tell how the truck can look as if it is standing still when it is really moving forward.

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Tell how the truck can look as if it is moving backward when it is really moving forward.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student responds to both parts of the question correctly: the truck was travelling at 55 mph, (the same speed as the car) so it looked like it was standing still. The truck then slows down or the car speeds up which makes it appear that the truck is moving backward.

Partial Student responds to part 1 of the question correctly: the truck was moving at the same speed (55 mph) as the car so it looked like it was not moving. OR Student responds to part 2 of the question correctly: if the truck slows down (under 55 mph) or the car speeds up, it will appear that the truck is moving backward.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response does not describe how fast the truck is moving in relation to the car.

 

11.    Right before Anna was about to run in a long race, she drank a large glass of orange juice to get energy. Tell how the energy that was in the orange juice actually came from the Sun.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student correctly explains energy transference from the Sun to orange juice.

Partial Student traces part of the path of energy from the Sun to the orange juice.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student does not trace any part of the path of energy from the Sun to the orange juice.

 

12.    Which is an example of water condensing?

A.     A puddle disappearing on a hot summer afternoon

B.     Sweat forming on your forehead after you do a lot of exercise

C.     Ice cubes melting when you put them out in the sun

D.     Dew forming on plants during a cold night

 

Key

 D

13.    Lightning and thunder happen at the same time, but you see the lightning before you hear the thunder. Explain why this is so.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student responds that although the thunder and lightning occur at the same time, light travels faster than sound so the light gets to your eye before the sound reaches your ear.

Partial Student response addresses speed and uses terminology such as thunder for sound and lightning for light, or makes a general statement about speed but does not tell which is faster.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response does not relate the speeds at which light and sound travel.

 

14.    A wire is cut into four pieces of different lengths. Each piece is stretched between two supports to the same tightness. Which of the pieces, shown below, would give the  highest pitch if it were plucked in the middle?

A.    

B.    

C.    

D.    

 

Key

 A

15.                          

 

Two identical cars travel at 45 miles per hour toward the center of the intersection (point A, as shown above) with equal force. The cars collide at the intersection. If after they collide the cars stick to each other and move together, they will come to rest closest to

A.     point A

B.     point B

C.     point C

D.     point D

 

Key

 C

16.    Maria has one glass of pure water and one glass of salt water, which look exactly alike. Explain what Maria could do, without tasting the water, to find out which glass contains the salt water.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response indicates an understanding of how to distinguish fresh water from salt water by describing both a method of determining the difference and a result.

Partial Student response indicates some understanding of the difference between fresh water and salt water but no practical method for doing so is clearly discussed or gives a correct method, or tells what to do, but not the result.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response shows no understanding of how to distinguish between fresh water and salt water.

 

The following question refer to the way electricity is conducted.

 

 

17.    Look at each item in the list below. Decide if it  conducts electricity or  does not conduct electricity. Put an X in the box to show what you decided.

 

Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student places all 7 items in the correct classification:

Essential Student places 4 – 6 items in the correct classification.

Partial Student places 1 – 3 items in the correct classification.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student places no items in the correct classification.

 

The following question refer to the way electricity is conducted.

18.    Suppose that you have one of the items from the list in Question 7 that you believe conducts electricity, and that you also have a battery, several wires, and a light bulb.

Explain how you could use these things to do a test to find out if the item you chose from the list in Question 7 does conduct electricity. Draw a picture to help explain your answer.

 

 

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student draws and/or describes how a battery, wires, and a light bulb could be used to test for electrical conductivity.

Partial Student describes some elements of a complete circuit, but does not clearly describe how the circuit could be modified to test for electrical conductivity (e.g., "hook up the wires to the battery and light bulb"), or student draws a partially correct picture or diagram, or draws an incorrect diagram but specifies that the lighting of the bulb would indicate conductivity.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student is unable to describe an electrical circuit or to explain accurately how to test an item for electrical conductivity.

 

19.    Why does the leaf of a plant look green?

A.     Because it absorbs green light

B.     Because it reflects green light

C.     Because it absorbs only yellow and blue light

D.     Because it reflects a mixture of yellow and blue light

 

Key

 B

20.    For each of the sources of electrical energy listed below, describe an advantage and a disadvantage of relying on that energy source for a large part of our country’s electrical energy.

Solar

 Advantage:

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Disadvantage:

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Nuclear

Advantage:

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Disadvantage:

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Hydroelectric

Advantage:

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Disadvantage:

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Fossil Fuels (coal and oil)

Advantage:

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Disadvantage:

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student provides one reasonable advantage and disadvantage for each of the energy sources listed (8 parts).

Essential Student provides correct answers to 6-7 of the parts.

Adequate Student provides correct answers to 3-5 of the parts.

Partial Student provides correct answers to 1-2 of the parts.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student provides no correct responses to any of the parts.

 

 

21.    Which zones in the map above are most likely to have a temperate climate (warm summers and cold winters) ?

A.     1 and 6

B.     2 and 5

C.     3 and 4

D.     1, 2, and 3

 

Key

 B

22.    An unusual type of fossil clam is found in rock layers high in the Swiss Alps. The same type of fossil clam is also found in the Rocky Mountains of North America. From this, scientists conclude that

A.     glaciers carried the fossils up the mountains

B.     the Rocky Mountains and the Swiss Alps are both volcanic in origin

C.     clams once lived in mountains, but have since evolved into sea-dwelling creatures

D.     the layers of rocks in which the fossils were found are from the same geologic age

 

Key

 D

23.    Recent studies indicate that ozone in the upper layers of Earth’s atmosphere is being depleted. What effect does the depletion of ozone have, and how is this effect harmful to humans?

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student explains 1) that a depletion of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere allows more ultraviolet radiation from the Sun to penetrate the Earth’s atmosphere and reach the Earth’s surface and 2) if human skin absorbs these increased amounts of ultraviolet radiation, an increased incidence of skin cancer can result.

Partial Student explains that decreased ozone leads to increased UV radiation or that decreased ozone leads to increased skin cancer.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student demonstrates little or no understanding of the relationship between ozone depletion, UV radiation, and skin cancer.

 

                                     

 

24.    The diagram above shows a food web in a large park. Each circle represents a different species in the food web. Which of the organisms in the food web could be referred to as primary consumers?

A.     7 only

B.     5 and 6 only

C.     2, 3, and 4 only

D.     2, 5, and 7 only

 

Key

 C

25.    What two gases make up most of the Earth’s atmosphere?

A.     Hydrogen and oxygen

B.     Hydrogen and nitrogen

C.     Oxygen and carbon dioxide

D.     Oxygen and nitrogen

 

Key

 D

26.    Each diagram below shows the same front view of a human heart. Which diagram has arrows that correctly show the path of blood flow through the heart and the blood vessels leading to and from the heart?

A.    

B.    

C.    

D.    

 

Key

 A

27.    When you exercise strenuously, your body produces excess heat. Describe what your body does to help prevent your temperature from rising excessively, and explain why the body’s response is effective.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student indicates that the body keeps its temperature from rising through sweating or by blood vessels dilating and states how these are effective.

Partial Student indicates that the body keeps its temperature from rising through sweating or by blood vessels dilating but does not explain fully how the mechanism works.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student provides little or no evidence of knowledge of any mechanism for losing heat during exercise.

 

28.    A human CANNOT survive the loss of which of the following?

A.     The appendix

B.     The liver

C.     A lung

D.     A kidney

 

Key

 B

29.    Which of the following is an example of genetic engineering?

A.     Growing a whole plant from a single cell.

B.     Finding the sequences of bases in plant DNA.

C.     Inserting a gene into plants that makes them resistant to insects.

D.     Attaching the root of one type of plant to the stem of another type of plant.

 

Key

 C

30.    In your body, what two organs work together to make sure that oxygen gets to all the other organs of your body?

A.     Lungs and kidneys

B.     Heart and lungs

C.     Brain and kidneys

D.     Heart and liver

 

Key

 B

31.    There are many different kinds of human-made satellites orbiting the Earth. List three things that these satellites are used for.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student lists three ways that satellites are used.

Partial Student lists one or two ways that satellites are used.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student does not list any correct ways satellites are used.

 

Some scientists think that the Earth’s climate is getting warmer.

 

32.    If these scientists are correct and the Earth keeps getting warmer for the next 50 years, what will happen to the oceans? Explain why this would happen.

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If these scientists are correct, what things about the Earth’s weather will change? Explain why this would happen.

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If these scientists are correct, what will happen to plants? Explain why this would happen.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student predicts the effects on oceans, weather, and plants and explains why each predicted event might occur. Response consists of six correct parts: a prediction and an explanation for each of oceans, weather, and plants.

Essential Student response consists of three to five correct parts.

Partial Student response consists of one or two correct parts.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response does not include any predictions of the effects of global warming.

 

33.    The Earth’s climate may be getting warmer because of some things that people do. List two human activities that may contribute to warming of the Earth’s climate.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student lists two human activities that are thought to contribute to global warming.

Partial Student lists one activity that may contribute to global warming.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response does not indicate an understanding of the relationship of humans to global warming.

 

34.    In the picture of a cell below, which label indicates the part of the cell that contains most of the cell’s genetic material?

                               

 

A.     1

B.     2

C.     3

D.     4

 

Key

 A

35.    Viet and Andrea were using a microscope to look at a slide of some cells. They looked at some interesting cells that Viet thought were plant cells. Andrea thought they looked more like animal cells. If you looked at these same cells, how could you tell whether they were plant cells or animal cells?

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student correctly provides one or more distinguishing characteristics that can be used to tell the difference between plant and animal cells.

Partial Student does not fully describe a distinguishing characteristic (e.g., "plant cells would be green from chlorophyll") or response contains inaccuracies.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student describes ways that plant and animal cells can be distinguished from each other, but these are incorrect or gives only a general statement (e.g., "they will look different").

 

36.    Julio wanted to know how his pulse rate changed when he ran very fast. He measured his pulse rate before he started running, while he was running, and two minutes after he stopped running. Which graph best shows how Julio’s pulse rate changed?

A.    

B.    

C.    

D.    

 

Key

 D

37.    How do most fish get the oxygen they need to survive?

A.     They take in water and break it down into hydrogen and oxygen.

B.     Using their gills, they take in oxygen that is dissolved in water.

C.     They get their oxygen from the food they eat.

D.     They come to the surface every few minutes to breathe air into their lungs.

 

Key

 B

38.    Pat has two kinds of plant food,"Quickgrow" and "Supergrow." What would be the best way for Pat to find out which plant food helps a particular type of houseplant grow the most?

A.     Put some Quickgrow on a plant in the living room, put some Supergrow on a plant of the same type in the bedroom, and see which one grows the most.

B.     Find out how much each kind of plant food costs, because the more expensive kind is probably better for growing plants.

C.     Put some Quickgrow on a few plants, put the same amount of Supergrow on a few other plants of the same type, put all the plants in the same place, and see which group of plants grows the most.

D.     Look at the advertisements for Quickgrow, look at the advertisements for Supergrow, and see which one says it helps plants grow the most.

 

Key

 C

39.    The picture below can be used to show how sandstone can form along the edge of a large lake. Draw and write on the picture to show the two main processes of sandstone formation.

 

 

 

Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response includes both parts of the sedimentary process. Part 1:  Rivers erode mountain material  Mountain material is carried by river  Erosion     Part 2:  Hardens  Solidifies  Compacts  Builds up in layers

Partial Student response includes part 1 or part 2 of the sedimentary process.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student does not demonstrate an understanding of the sedimentary process.

 

40.    On steep slopes along the sides of new roads, highway department workers often grow plants to prevent the soil from being eroded. Describe two ways that these plants keep the soil from eroding.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response includes two ways plants prevent erosion.

Partial Student response includes one way that plants prevent erosion.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response does not demonstrate an understanding of how plants prevent erosion.

 

41.    All of the following are examples of erosion  EXCEPT:

A.     The wind in the desert blows sand against a rock.

B.     A glacier picks up boulders as it moves.

C.     A flood washes over a riverbank, and the water carries small soil particles downstream.

D.     An icy winter causes the pavement in a road to crack.

 

Key

 D

The following question

Sarah looked at some pond water with a microscope. She used the low-power objective lens to look at some green algae. The picture below shows what Sarah saw through the microscope.

 

                      

 

 

42.    What is the role of the pond organisms that Sarah saw in her field of view?

A.     Producer

B.     Primary consumer

C.     Secondary consumer

D.     Decomposer

 

Key

 A

The following question

Sarah looked at some pond water with a microscope. She used the low-power objective lens to look at some green algae. The picture below shows what Sarah saw through the microscope.

 

                             

 

 

43.    If Sarah switched the lens from low power to high power, what would she see in the field of view?

A.     A lot more cells than with the low-power view, but in lesser detail.

B.     The same number of cells as with the low-power view, but in lesser detail.

C.     The same number of cells as with the low-power view, but in greater detail.

D.     Fewer cells than with the low-power view, but in greater detail.

 

Key

 D

44.    Seedlings of the same species of plant can grow at different rates. For example, some seedlings grow tall very fast, but other seedlings grow tall much more slowly. Explain why it might be advantageous for a plant seedling to grow tall very fast.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates understanding of plant requirements by giving a full explanation of why it might be advantageous for seedlings to grow tall very fast.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student fails to state any advantage of growing tall very fast, or provides an incorrect advantage (e.g., better able to survive in harsh conditions; it doesn’t get uprooted or ruined when small).

 

45.    Sometimes the Moon looks like a full circle, sometimes it looks like a half circle, and sometimes it looks like a crescent. Explain why the Moon appears to be different shapes at different times.You may use labeled drawings in your explanation.

 

 

 

Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student explanation includes all the points given below. Student can provide a drawing correctly illustrating the phases of the moon.  The Moon is visible because it reflects (or is illuminated by) sunlight.  The Moon revolves around the Earth.  The portion of the illuminated half of the Moon that is visible from Earth changes, thus making the Moon appear to change shape.

Partial Student explains 1 or 2 aspects of the causes of the phases of the Moon without major misconceptions.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student does not correctly explain any aspect of the phases of the Moon, or explains aspects but includes major misconceptions.

 

The following question refers to the topographic map below, which shows Willow Hill (elevation

312 feet) and Hobbes Creek. On the map, each contour line represents 20 feet of elevation.

 

 

1.   What is the elevation at point X ?

A.     240 feet

B.     250 feet

C.     280 feet

D.     300 feet

 

Key

 C

The following question refers to the topographic map below, which shows Willow Hill (elevation

312 feet) and Hobbes Creek. On the map, each contour line represents 20 feet of elevation.

 

 

 

 

2.   In which general direction does Hobbes Creek flow?

A.     To the north

B.     To the east

C.     To the south

D.     To the west

 

Key

 A

The following question refers to the topographic map below, which shows Willow Hill (elevation

312 feet) and Hobbes Creek. On the map, each contour line represents 20 feet of elevation.

 

 

3.   Which side of Willow Hill has the most gradual slope?

A.     North side

B.     East side

C.     South side

D.     West side

 

Key

 B

4.   Which of the following best explains why the pressure inside a high-flying airplane must be controlled?

A.     At high altitudes there is greater atmospheric pressure than on the surface of the Earth.

B.     At high altitudes there is lower atmospheric pressure than on the surface of the Earth.

C.     If the cabin is not pressurized, ozone and other upper atmospheric gases will enter the airplane.

D.     If the cabin is not pressurized, carbon dioxide will escape from the airplane.

 

Key

 B

The following question refers to shadows created by sunlight.

 

5.   If you go outside on a sunny day, you will make a shadow. At some times of day your shadow is longer than you are. At other times of day it is shorter than you are. How can this difference in the length of your shadow be explained? (You can use a drawing to help explain your answer.)

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response demonstrates understanding of how the length of shadows changes over the course of the day as the position of the Sun in the sky changes. For example:   1. The more directly overhead the Sun is, the shorter the shadow will be.   2. The shadow’s length changes as the angle of the Sun changes.   3. A response containing a clear diagram that shows an object with shadows at different times of day with the Sun in appropriate positions, with no explanation.

Partial Student response demonstrates understanding of the length of the shadow being related to the position of the Sun in the sky, but does not explain this relationship. For example: the length of a shadow depends on where the Sun is.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response provides an incorrect explanation such as shadow variation being due to the brightness of the Sun, or the distance between the Earth and the Sun.

 

The following question refers to shadows created by sunlight.

 

6.   Suppose that for a science project you wanted to find exactly how much the length of a shadow changes during the day. Describe both the materials and the procedures you would use to make these observations.

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student describes an appropriate procedure for determining how much a shadow changes throughout the day. An appropriate procedure consists of three parts:   1. an object or person whose shadow is cast,   2. a measuring method or statement that the length of the shadow is measured,   3. at least three observations throughout the day that must specify or imply both morning and afternoon observations.

Essential Student describes a procedure but omits one of the three parts outlined above.

Partial Student describes a procedure but omits two of the three parts outlined above. Response may be vague but seemingly logical.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student does not describe what would be needed to make the measurements or the procedures that would be used to make the measurements, or lists equipment only. Response does not illustrate logical methodology.

 

The following question refers to shadows created by sunlight.

 

7.   If you measured your shadow at noon during the summer and at noon during the winter, would the measurements be the same or would they be different?

 

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Explain your answer.

 

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student response states that the length of the shadow will be different in the winter because during winter the Sun is lower in the sky, or because the Sun’s rays hit the Earth at a different angle.

Partial Student response states that the length of the shadow will be different in the winter, but continues with an explanation that is correct, but incomplete.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student states that the length of the shadow will be different or the same in the winter, with an explanation that shows a lack of understanding of how shadows change on a seasonal basis.

 

8.   The Earth’s Moon is

A.     always much closer to the Sun than it is to the Earth

B.     always much closer to the Earth than it is to the Sun

C.     about the same distance from the Sun as it is from the Earth

D.     sometimes closer to the Sun than it is to the Earth and sometimes closer to the Earth than it is to the Sun

 

Key

 B

9.   Cleopatra’s Needle is a large stone monument that stood in an Egyptian desert for thousands of years. Then it was moved to New York City’s Central Park. After only a few years, its surface began crumbling.

What probably caused this crumbling?

 

 

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New York City wants to keep Cleopatra’s Needle in the same location in Central Park. How can the city prevent further damage to the stone?

 

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Scoring Guide

 

Score & Description

Complete Student demonstrates an ability to relate the crumbling of a stone edifice with weathering and with atmospheric pollution, and demonstrates understanding of how further damage can be prevented. Student response mentions a specific cause of crumbling and an acceptable way of preventing further damage. Specific causes include:     1. pollution   2. humidity   3. noise vibrations.   Acceptable methods of prevention include:     1. putting a roof over it   2. paint with sealant   3. reduce pollution by carpooling   4. reduce vibrations

Partial Student response mentions a specific cause of crumbling, or an acceptable way of preventing further damage, but not both. OR   Student response mentions a general cause of crumbling. In addition, response may or may not mention an acceptable prevention method.   General causes include:     1. change in climate/environment   2. weather.

Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response demonstrates no understanding of why Cleopatra’s Needle is crumbling and what can be done about it. Response may cite unrelated factors (e.g. because of the move or because of age), or mention methods that do not prevent further crumbling in its present location (e.g. fill in cracks or move it indoors).

 

10.    Which of the following would be the best model to show the interactions between water and the Sun’s heat energy in cycles of precipitation?

A.     A light shines on an aquarium covered with glass, and water droplets form on the inside of the glass.

B.     A light shines on a closed cardboard box containing a plant.

C.     A light shines on a man’s face. Droplets of sweat form on his face as he exercises.

D.     A light shines on a glass of iced tea. Water droplets form on the outside of the glass.

 

Key

 A