1. Which particle is a negatively charged ion?
A. Hydrogen (H) with 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron
B. Sodium (Na) with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons
C. Chlorine (Cl) with 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 18 electrons
D. Magnesium (Mg) with 12 protons, 12 neutrons, and 12 electrons
Key
C
2. Which of the following is an example of a nuclear fission reaction?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Key
D
3. Why does radioactive dating of meteorites give a more accurate age for Earth than radioactive dating of rocks at Earth’s surface?
A. Most rocks that first formed on Earth’s surface have since undergone major geologic changes.
B. Most rocks found on Earth’s surface are older than most meteorites.
C. Most meteorites contain minerals that are the same age as those found on Earth’s surface.
D. Most meteorites are made of the same type of iron that is found in Earth’s core.
Key
A
4. A student placed two identical beakers on a windowsill. One beaker contained 80 milliliters (mL) of Liquid A, and the other beaker contained 80 mL of Liquid B. The student left the beakers uncovered and undisturbed.
After three days, both beakers contained less liquid. However, there was less of Liquid B than Liquid A. The diagram below shows the volume of liquid in each beaker at the start of the experiment and after three days.
Why is there less liquid in both beakers after three days?
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Which liquid has the lower boiling point?
1. Liquid A
2. Liquid B
Explain how you know. Support your answer by referring to the results of the experiment and by comparing the attraction among the molecules in Liquid A with the attraction among the molecules in Liquid B.
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Scoring Guide
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Score & Description |
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Complete Student response consists of four parts: indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated indicates that Liquid B has the lower boiling point relates the lower boiling point to greater evaporation of Liquid B or to less thermal energy required to change Liquid B to gas relates the lower boiling point to the weaker attraction among the molecules of Liquid B
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Satisfactory Student response indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated. Response identifies that Liquid B has the lower boiling point, and it correctly relates the lower boiling point to the relative evaporation of Liquids A and B to the amount of thermal energy required to change Liquid B to a gas or to the attraction among the molecules. OR Student response indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated. Response incorrectly selects (A) Liquid A, but it correctly relates the lower boiling point either to the relative evaporation of Liquids A and B or to the smaller amount of thermal energy required to change Liquid B to a gas. Response also correctly relates the lower boiling point to the weaker molecular attraction among the molecules of Liquid B supporting choice (B). |
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Essential Student response indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated. Response incorrectly selects (A) Liquid A, but it correctly relates the lower boiling temperature to the relative evaporation of Liquids A and B or to the smaller amount of thermal energy required to change Liquid B to a gas or to the weaker attraction among the molecules of Liquid B. OR Student response identifies that Liquid B has the lower boiling point, and it correctly relates the lower boiling point to the relative reduction in volumes of Liquids A and B to the smaller amount of thermal energy required to change the state of Liquid B or to the weaker attraction among the molecules of Liquid B. |
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Partial Student response indicates that some of the liquid in each beaker has evaporated. OR Student response correctly relates the lower boiling point to the relative evaporation of Liquids A and B to the smaller amount of thermal energy required to change Liquid B to a gas or to the weaker attraction among the molecules of Liquid B. |
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Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect. |
The following question refer to the following information.
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they develop an evolutionary tree, as shown below.
5. What information about the organisms best helps the scientists to determine the evolutionary relationships among them?
A. DNA sequences
B. Anatomical features
C. Habitat types
D. Reproductive strategies
Key
A
The following question refer to the following information.
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they develop an evolutionary tree, as shown below.
6. Which statement can be inferred from the evolutionary tree?
A. Species 1 is most closely related to Species 8.
B. Species 2 is most closely related to Species 3.
C. Species 3 is most closely related to Species 7.
D. Species 5 is most closely related to Species 6.
Key
D
The following question refer to the following information.
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they develop an evolutionary tree, as shown below.
7. Additional data indicated that Species 8 shares a similar thorny leaf structure with a different plant species found in Madagascar (an African country), as shown below. The scientists hypothesized that different plant species can have similar leaf structures but not be closely related.
Explain how to test the scientists’ hypothesis.
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Scoring Guide
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Score & Description |
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Complete Student response describes the type of data to be collected and indicates that these data need to be collected from both species and compared. |
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Partial Student response describes the type of data to be collected. OR
Student response indicates that these data need to be collected from both species and compared.
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Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect. |
The following question refer to the carbon cycle diagram below, which shows some of the ways that carbon moves through different parts of Earth’s environment.
8. Which portion of the carbon cycle is driven directly by energy from the Sun?
A. The formation of coal beneath rock layers
B. The release of carbon dioxide during volcanic eruptions
C. The emission of carbon dioxide from oil-burning power plants
D. The formation of sugars at Earth’s surface
Key
D
The following question refer to the carbon cycle diagram below, which shows some of the ways that carbon moves through different parts of Earth’s environment.
9. In the diagram, which portion of the carbon cycle is driven directly by Earth’s internal heat energy?
A. The movement of carbon between the ocean and the atmosphere
B. The emission of carbon dioxide from oil-burning power plants
C. The release of carbon dioxide during volcanic eruptions
D. The exhalation of carbon dioxide by animals
Key
C
10. Although nuclear fusion power plants are not currently used for power generation, people want to develop fusion power. Nuclear fusion power plants in the future are expected to solve some of the technological problems of existing nuclear fission power plants.
Describe two advantages nuclear fusion power would have compared with nuclear fission power. (Do not include economic factors.)
1.
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2.
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Scoring Guide
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Score & Description |
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Complete Student response provides two correct advantages of fusion power plants compared to fission power plants. |
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Partial Student response provides one advantage of fusion power plants. |
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Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect. |
11. What is the correct order for the levels of organization in living systems from the simplest to the most complex? (Note that not all levels of organization are included.)
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Key
A
12. Emissions of greenhouse gases from automobiles and factories are often cited as a cause of global warming. Automobiles and factories also emit solid particles such as smoke and ash.
Explain how emissions of these solid particles could cause global cooling.
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Scoring Guide
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Score & Description |
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Complete Student response indicates that the solid particles in the atmosphere block incoming solar radiation so Earth is heated less. |
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Partial Student response indicates that the solid particles in the atmosphere block incoming solar radiation. OR Student response indicates that the solid particles in the atmosphere cause less heat to reach Earth. |
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Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect. |
13. If the Sun were twice as far away from Earth as it is now, what would happen to the strength of the gravitational force between the Sun and Earth?
A. It would be the same strength as it is now.
B. It would be two times as strong as it is now.
C. It would be one-half as strong as it is now.
D. It would be one-fourth as strong as it is now.
Key
D
The following question refer to the following experiment.
An experiment was conducted to determine which wavelengths of visible light are most effective for photosynthesis. The units shown here are in nanometers (nm).
Two organisms were used: filamentous algae, which are capable of photosynthesis, and some aerobic bacteria, which are not capable of photosynthesis.
Both organisms were suspended in a water droplet and placed on a microscope slide. The slide was exposed to light that was passed through a crystal prism. (The prism was used to separate visible light into its wavelengths.)
The diagram below illustrates what was seen on the microscope slide before and one hour after exposure to light that was passed through the prism.
14. Based on the results of the experiment, which two regions of the visible light spectrum are most effective for photosynthesis?
1.
2.
Explain the relationship between the aerobic bacteria and the filamentous algae.
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Scoring Guide
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Score & Description |
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Complete Student response consists of three parts: identifies a region of the light spectrum effective for photosynthesis: 420 nm (acceptable values from 400-500 nm), violet, or blue light identifies a second region of the light spectrum effective for photosynthesis: 680 nm (acceptable values from 560-700 nm), orange, or red light demonstrates understanding of bacteria clustered in the region where oxygen is given off by the algae during photosynthesis
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Essential Student response addresses two parts of a correct explanation. |
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Partial Student response addresses one part of a correct explanation. |
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Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect. |
The following question refer to the following experiment.
An experiment was conducted to determine which wavelengths of visible light are most effective for photosynthesis. The units shown here are in nanometers (nm).
Two organisms were used: filamentous algae, which are capable of photosynthesis, and some aerobic bacteria, which are not capable of photosynthesis.
Both organisms were suspended in a water droplet and placed on a microscope slide. The slide was exposed to light that was passed through a crystal prism. (The prism was used to separate visible light into its wavelengths.)
The diagram below illustrates what was seen on the microscope slide before and one hour after exposure to light that was passed through the prism.
15. The diagram below illustrates what was seen on the microscope slide one hour after exposure to light that was passed through a prism. The colors associated with the wavelengths of light are also indicated.
Based on the results of the experiment, a student concludes that the scientist used algae that was green.
Do you agree with the student’s conclusion?
1. Yes
2. No
Refer to the results from the experiment to support your answer.
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Scoring Guide
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Score & Description |
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Complete Student response selects (A) Yes and provides a correct explanation that consists of three parts:
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Essential Student response selects (A) Yes and addresses two parts of a correct explanation. OR Student response does not select (A) but addresses three parts of a correct explanation. |
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Partial Student response indicates (A) Yes and addresses one part of a complete response correctly. OR Student response selects (B) No or makes no selection, but addresses one or two parts of a complete response correctly. |
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Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect. |
16. Two dogs pull on a flat-bottom sled with forces of equal magnitude in the directions indicated by the arrows below. The dot represents the sled.
Which arrow best represents the direction of motion of the sled?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Key
C
17. The picture below shows a rock formation with folded layers.
Which statement best explains how the rock layers folded?
A. The rock melted and flowed downhill.
B. The rock was deformed by a meteorite impact.
C. The rock was suddenly pulled apart during an earthquake.
D. The rock was slowly compressed due to tectonic plate movement.
Key
D
18. Scientists determine what elements a star is made of by studying the light it emits. They compare the spectrum of the starlight to reference spectra of known elements.
The diagram below shows the characteristic spectral line patterns of four elements. Also shown is the spectrum of a star that contains two of these elements.
Which two of these elements are present in the star?
A. Lithium and helium
B. Lithium and sodium
C. Hydrogen and helium
D. Hydrogen and sodium
Key
C
19. When a cork is added to a glass of water, the cork floats at the top of the water instead of sinking to the bottom of the glass. Which statement helps explain why this happens?
A. The cork absorbs the water, so it cannot sink.
B. The water is exerting an upward force on the cork.
C. The water stops the force of gravity from acting on the cork.
D. The density of the cork is greater than that of the water.
Key
B
20. Which statement about the offspring that result from sexual reproduction is generally true?
A. The offspring show genetic variation from the parents.
B. The offspring have genetic material identical to that of one another.
C. The offspring have genetic material identical to that of one of the parents.
D. The offspring have twice as much genetic material as each parent.
Key
A
21. The figure below shows a 2-kilogram (kg) object. A 10-newton (N) force pushes the object horizontally across a level flat surface. The frictional force that results from contact with the surface produces a 2-N force that opposes the direction of the object’s movement.
Calculate the net force on the object in newtons (N). Show your calculations.
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Calculate the acceleration of the object in meters per second squared (m/s2). Show your calculations.
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Scoring Guide
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Score & Description |
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Complete Student response consists of four parts: shows or describes how to calculate the net force on the object, which is determined from the difference between the opposing forces provides the correct answer for the net force on the object, which is 8N shows or describes how to calculate the acceleration of the object, which is determined from the net force and mass of the object according to the equation F = ma provides the correct answer for the acceleration of the object, which is 4 m/s2 when the force calculation is done correctly
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Satisfactory Student response correctly addresses three parts of a complete response. |
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Essential Student response correctly addresses two parts of a complete response. |
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Partial Student response correctly addresses one part of a complete response. |
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Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect. |
The following question refer to the growth of bacteria.
A scientist studied the growth rate of a species of bacterium. The scientist introduced some of the bacteria into a flask of nutrient-rich solution and monitored the growth of the bacterial population by measuring the number of living cells in the solution.
The graph below shows the growth of the bacterial population over time in hours (h).
22. Over which time period did the number of living bacteria increase at the greatest rate?
A. Between hours 0 and 1
B. Between hours 1 and 8
C. Between hours 8 and 16
D. Between hours 16 and 24
Key
B
The following question refer to the growth of bacteria.
A scientist studied the growth rate of a species of bacterium. The scientist introduced some of the bacteria into a flask of nutrient-rich solution and monitored the growth of the bacterial population by measuring the number of living cells in the solution.
The graph below shows the growth of the bacterial population over time in hours (h).
23. Explain why the growth rate of the bacteria changed as it did during the following time periods. Refer to the data and your understanding of cellular processes and their regulation by internal and external environments
Between hours 6 and 12:
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Between hours 16 and 24:
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Scoring Guide
Score & Description:
This item was scored in 2 parts.
Part A: Between hours 6 and 12
Part B: Between hours 16 and 24
Part A:
Complete
Student response provides a complete explanation as to why the growth rate of the bacteria changed as it did during the period between hours 6 and 12. The response indicates what happened to the growth rate and explains a change in the environmental conditions that results in the change.
Partial
Student response provides an explanation that either indicates what happened to the growth rate or explains a change in the environmental conditions that results in the change.
OR
Student response indicates that the population number is slowing down or maintaining the same level and explains that this is due to an environmental change.
Unsatisfactory/Incorrect
Student response is inadequate or incorrect.
Part B:
Complete
Student response provides a complete explanation as to why the growth rate of the bacteria changed as it did during the period between hours 16 and 24. The response indicates what happened to the growth rate, including that bacterial cells are dying, and explains a change in the environmental conditions that results in the change.
Partial
Student response provides an explanation that either indicates what happened to the growth rate, indicates that bacterial cells are dying, or explains a change in the environmental conditions that results in the change.
OR
Student response indicates that the population number is decreasing and explains that this is due to an environmental change.
Unsatisfactory/Incorrect
Student response is inadequate or incorrect.
Composite Score:
Student response received one of four possible composite scores (Complete, Essential, Partial, Unsatisfactory/Incorrect) based on the student’s combined performance on Parts A and B of the item. For example, a student response Complete for Part A and Partial for Part B received a composite score of Essential.
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Composite Score |
Part A |
Part B |
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Complete |
Complete |
Complete |
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Essential |
Complete |
Partial |
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Partial |
Complete |
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Partial |
Partial |
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Complete |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Complete |
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Partial |
Partial |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Partial |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
The following question refer to the growth of bacteria.
A scientist studied the growth rate of a species of bacterium. The scientist introduced some of the bacteria into a flask of nutrient-rich solution and monitored the growth of the bacterial population by measuring the number of living cells in the solution.
The graph below shows the growth of the bacterial population over time in hours (h).
24. The scientist wanted to determine the effect of an antibiotic on the growth of the bacterium. To a second flask of nutrient-rich solution with the bacterial cells, he added the antibiotic, and monitored the growth of the bacterial population.
The data showed that most of the bacteria in the solution died, but some survived. The scientist concluded that some of the bacteria were resistant to the antibiotic.
Explain why some of the bacteria were resistant to the antibiotic, based on the theory of evolution.
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Scoring Guide
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Score & Description |
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Complete Student response correctly explains that some of the bacteria resistant to the antibiotic had a genetic mutation. The resistant bacteria divided passing the genetic mutation to the next generation. |
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Partial Student response indicates that some of the bacteria resistant to the antibiotic had a genetic mutation. OR Student response indicates that the resistant bacteria divided, passing the genetic mutation to the next generation. |
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Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect. |
The following question refer to the following diagram, which shows a boy jumping on a trampoline.
25. Which statement best explains the energy transfer as the boy moves from Position 1 to Position 2?
A. The boy’s kinetic energy is transferred to the elastic potential energy of the trampoline.
B. The boy’s gravitational potential energy is transferred to the elastic potential energy of the trampoline.
C. The gravitational potential energy of the trampoline is transferred to the boy’s kinetic energy.
D. The elastic potential energy of the trampoline is transferred to the boy’s kinetic energy.
Key
D
The following question refer to the following diagram, which shows a boy jumping on a trampoline.
26. Which statement best explains the energy transfer as the boy moves from Position 2 to Position 3?
A. The boy’s kinetic energy is transferred to the boy’s gravitational potential energy.
B. The boy’s gravitational potential energy is transferred to the boy’s kinetic energy.
C. The boy’s gravitational potential energy is transferred to the kinetic energy of the air molecules around him.
D. The kinetic energy of the air molecules around the boy is transferred to the boy’s kinetic energy.
Key
A
27. A city block of land will be developed into a park with a playground. The soil on this site is contaminated to a depth of 18 centimeters with lead, which is harmful to humans and other organisms. The lead must be reduced to safe levels before the land is developed. Three methods of removing lead from the soil are described in the table below.
All of the treatment methods described will successfully reduce lead to safe levels. Each method has environmental advantages and disadvantages.
In the table below, identify one environmental advantage and one disadvantage specific to each method.
Scoring Guide
Score & Description:
This item was scored in 3 parts.
Part A: Advantage and disadvantage of removing the soil
Part B: Advantage and disadvantage of washing the soil
Part C: Advantage and disadvantage of growing mustard plants in the soil
Part A:
Complete
Student response identifies one correct environmental advantage and one correct environmental disadvantage of removing the soil.
Partial
Student response identifies either one correct environmental advantage or one correct environmental disadvantage.
Unsatisfactory/Incorrect
Student response is inadequate or incorrect.
Part B:
Complete
Student response identifies one correct environmental advantage and one correct environmental disadvantage of washing the soil.
Partial
Student response identifies either one correct environmental advantage or one correct environmental disadvantage.
Unsatisfactory/Incorrect
Student response is inadequate or incorrect.
Part C:
Complete
Student response identifies one correct environmental advantage and one correct environmental disadvantage of growing mustard plants in the soil.
Partial
Student response identifies either one correct environmental advantage or one correct environmental disadvantage.
Unsatisfactory/Incorrect
Student response is inadequate or incorrect.
Composite Score:
Student response received one of five possible composite scores (Complete, Satisfactory, Essential, Partial, Unsatisfactory/Incorrect) based on the student’s combined performance on Parts A, B, and C of the item. For example, a student response Complete for Part A, Complete for Part B, and Partial for Part C received a composite score of Satisfactory.
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Composite Score |
Part A |
Part B |
Part C |
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Complete |
Complete |
Complete |
Complete |
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Satisfactory |
Complete |
Complete |
Partial |
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Complete |
Partial |
Complete |
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Partial |
Complete |
Complete |
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Essential |
Complete |
Partial |
Partial |
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Partial |
Complete |
Partial |
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Partial |
Partial |
Complete |
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Complete |
Complete |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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Complete |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Complete |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Complete |
Complete |
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Partial |
Partial |
Partial |
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Complete |
Partial |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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Partial |
Complete |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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Complete |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Partial |
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Partial |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Complete |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Complete |
Partial |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Partial |
Complete |
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Partial |
Partial |
Partial |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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Partial |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Partial |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Partial |
Partial |
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Complete |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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|
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Complete |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Complete |
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Partial |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Partial |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Partial |
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Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
Unsatisfactory/ Incorrect |
The following question refer to the following diagram of forelimbs of different animals.
28. Based on the anatomical structure of the forelimbs, which animal most likely evolved to live only in an aquatic (water) environment?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Key
D
The following question refer to the following diagram of forelimbs of different animals.
29. Which statement best helps to explain how these different structures could arise from a common precursor?
A. Mutations in the genes regulating limb development led to gradual changes in structure, which provided a selective advantage to the organisms.
B. A single mutation in the genes regulating limb development resulted in a change in structure, which led to the modified limbs in offspring.
C. Changes in the environment caused mutations in the genes regulating limb development, which provided a means to thrive under the new conditions.
D. Limbs changed in response to the changing needs of the organisms, which led to the modified limbs in offspring.
Key
A
30. Two identical cups contain water at 30°C. Cup A contains 20 grams (g) of water, and Cup B contains 40 grams of water, as shown in the diagram below.
Which cup of water will release more thermal energy when it is allowed to reach the room temperature of 25°C?
1. Cup A
2. Cup B
3. Both cups will release the same amount of thermal energy.
Explain your reasoning.
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Scoring Guide
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Score & Description |
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Complete Student response selects (B) Cup B and correctly explains that the amount of thermal energy released depends on the mass of the material and its change in temperature. Response demonstrates understanding that since the temperature change is the same in both cups of water, Cup B, with the greater mass, releases more thermal energy. |
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Essential Student response selects (B) with an explanation that relates the amount of thermal energy released to the greater mass of water in Cup B. |
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Partial Student response selects (B) with no explanation. OR
Student response selects (A) or (C) but provides an explanation that relates the amount of thermal energy released to the greater mass of water in Cup B.
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Unsatisfactory/Incorrect Student response is inadequate or incorrect. |
31. What is a property of all galaxies?
A. All galaxies have a spiral shape.
B. All galaxies are the same size.
C. All galaxies contain a large number of stars.
D. All galaxies rotate around a central star.
Key
C
32. What is the main reason that water has the ability to dissolve many different substances?
A. Water has a lower molecular mass than many substances.
B. Water molecules attract ions and the charged parts of molecules.
C. Water molecules are larger than the ions or molecules they dissolve.
D. Water is more dense in the liquid phase than in the solid phase.
Key
B
33. Coal, petroleum, and natural gas found underground in certain parts of Earth are primarily formed from which process?
A. Decay of radioactive elements
B. Collision of tectonic plates in earthquakes
C. Transformation of dead plants and animals under heat and pressure
D. Intrusion of water into the soil that breaks up rocks and minerals
Key
C
34. Which equation represents a chemical change?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Key
C